Research on my suggested translation of τῶν οὐρανῶν

In “Research on my suggested translation of τῶν οὐρανῶν” Jefferson Vann attempts to prove that the Greek phrase can mean “from the sky” and asks for feedback.

In some articles in AFTERLIFE, in my translation work, and my next Kindle book, I have suggested an alternate translation to "of heaven." For example, instead of "the kingdom of heaven," I use "the kingdom from the sky."

So, before I go any further, I want to see if this alternate translation can be supported. If I discover that the Bible never uses the words for sky (shamayim (שָׁמַיִם) in Hebrew and ouranos (οὐρανός) or ouranōn (οὐρανῶν) in Greek) in that way, I will revise my translation, recant my position, and repair the damage in my book before it is published. If, however, I do find support for my alternate translation, this research will be included as evidence in the book.

The first phase of my research is to look into the texts of the Old and New Testaments to see if my alternate translation is reflected there.

The first question is: Are there any instances in the New Testament (in a modern translation -- I will use the NET ) where the phrase τῶν οὐρανῶν is used as the source of the noun it modifies?

The answer is no, but there are two times it comes close. The NET uses the phrase "from the sky" in Revelation 8:10 and 9:1 for

ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ. These instances do not prove the validity of my translation for two reasons. In each, the noun is singular and a preposition (ἐκ) is used to imply the sky as the source.

So, for the second question, I go to see if the Old Testament can come to my rescue. Are there any instances in the Old Testament where the שָׁמַיִם is mentioned as the source of something, without the use of the particle מִן?

There are numerous examples of the English phrase "from the sky" which employ the Hebrew equivalent of ἐκ -- that is מִן (Genesis 8:2; 19:24; Deuteronomy 28:24; Joshua 10:11; 2 Samuel 22:14; 2 Kings 1:10, 12, 14; 1 Chronicles 21:26; Psalm 85:11 (12 in Hebrew); 148:1; Isaiah 14:12; 55:10).

[1 Kings 18:38 includes the phrase ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ in the Greek and is the basis for the NET rendering "from the sky" in that text. The Hebrew for that phrase is missing from the Codex Leningradensis Hebrew Text that I am reading from, so is not included in the above list].

All that is bad news for me, because it does not establish my hypothesis. Three Hebrew texts appear to support it:

Genesis 49:25 because of the God of your father, who will help you, because of the sovereign God, who will bless you with blessings from the sky above, blessings from the deep that lies below, and blessings of the breasts and womb.

The phrase "blessings from the sky" reflects the Hebrew phrase בִּרְכֹ֤ת שָׁמַ֙יִם֙. Its Greek equivalent in the Septuagint is εὐλογίαν οὐρανοῦ. The phrase does not contain a preposition, but it is singular, whereas τῶν οὐρανῶν in Matthew is plural.

Job 38:29 From whose womb does the ice emerge, and the frost from the sky, who gives birth to it?

The phrase "frost from the sky" reflects the Hebrew phrase ‎כְפֹ֥ר שָׁ֜מַיִם. Again, no preposition, but it, too, is singular.

Psalm 105:40 They asked for food, and he sent quails; he satisfied them with food from the sky.

The phrase "food from the sky" reflects the Hebrew phrase ‎לֶ֥חֶם שָׁ֜מַ֗יִם. This phrase also is in the singular, with no preposition.

There is some justification for the assumption that the sky is the source of the coming kingdom. We must look at how the phrase βασιλεία τῶν οὐρανῶν (or its equivalent in another case) is used in Matthew's Gospel to see if Matthew could be using the phrase as a genitive of source.

Phase two: βασιλεία τῶν οὐρανῶν in Matthew.

There are several cases in which the kingdom is described as a present reality. For example,

Matthew 13:24 NET) He presented them with another parable: "The kingdom of heaven is like a person who sowed good seed in his field. (Also 5:3, 10; 11:12; 13:11, 24, 31, 33, 44, 45, 47, 52; 16:19; 18:1, 4, 23; 19:14, 23; 20:1; 22:2; 23:13).

These cases represent the present stage of a future kingdom to come. They do not negate the assumption that that future kingdom will come down from the sky. They merely talk about the way people in the present (down here on the land) can prepare for it.

Some uses of the phrase refer to a future advent.

Matthew 3:2 "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is near."

Matthew 4:17 From that time Jesus began to preach this message: "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is near."

Matthew 5:19 So anyone who breaks one of the least of these commands and teaches others to do so will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever obeys them and teaches others to do so will be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Matthew 8:11 I tell you, many will come from the east and west to share the banquet with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven,

Matthew 10:7 As you go, preach this message: 'The kingdom of heaven is near!'

Matthew 11:11 "I tell you the truth, among those born of women, no one has arisen greater than John the Baptist. Yet the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he is.

Matthew 18:3 and said, "I tell you the truth, unless you turn around and become like little children, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven!

Matthew 25:1 "At that time the kingdom of heaven will be like ten virgins who took their lamps and went out to meet the bridegroom.

These passages reflecting the awareness of a future advent in which the kingdom will come in its fullness suggest that τῶν οὐρανῶν (whether it is translated "sky" or "heaven") might be descriptive of the source of that coming kingdom.

I say "might be" because I am still open to being persuaded to change my mind about the phrase. So, rather than declare a verdict at this point, I am asking for your help. Have I made a convincing case for understanding the sky (or heaven) as the source of the coming kingdom in Matthew? If I have, tell me why (in a comment on this post), if I haven't, tell me why not. Thank you.